They had already (maybe, depending on when the narrative surrounding the Job poetry was written -- if this was written during or after the exile then they didn't already have even this) had a figure appointed by God to make sycophants honest by pointing out problems with what they say. In other words he was an angel in good standing doing a job God assigned him.
The identification of the Zoroastrian deity with this Shatan or something was not hard, and it fit with the Jewish monotheist thinking (you can't have a co-eternal deity and be a monotheist even if you follow only one of them).
It was then much, much later that Christians identified Satan with the serpent in Genesis. As far as the Genesis account has it you only have a talking snake.
The horns and all that also came later, in identification with the Greek god Pan (as described above).
The thing to notice is in the OT you don't see evil acts or idolatry or anything like that blamed on anyone except the perpetrators, not on a devil and his existence is not mentioned (although God himself blames himself a couple times) .
What I really don't get is why doesn't Satan just give it up and beg for mercy? Would God deny it? Satan's pride is described in Milton's Paradise Lost, and I remember when I read that (way back) thinking, "This is not real, not believable."
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